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Questions I & III It seems evident that due to it's limited access via social castes as well as it's provincial ideology once attained, education before the 1800's played a limited role in the history of Education. From the rhetoric-based Greek age of Plato and Aristotle to colonial America, education was mostly an elitist institution that was inaccessible to most and, if one was so privileged as to attain it, full of hackneyed, non-progressive ritual; thus
again, however, due to the exclusiveness of educational opportunities concentrated on those with status, power and, money, the impact on Education that the middle ages had was limited. In contrast to its' insular curriculum of the Greco-Roman period and its' monopolization by the church during the medieval period, education during the renaissance became "enlightened." As religion was called into question, and the middle class began developing, the educational stagnation of the middle ages also evolved.